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Was Jesus referring to himself, and if so in what sense?

In Mark 2:23-28 Jesus uses the term "Son of Man" and "Lord of the Sabbath".  Was Jesus referring to himself in this passage? If he was by the former title then he also was by the latter title.  In the New Testament only Jesus ever referred to himself by this term, therefore Mark 2 cannot be the exception.

  • 16 October 2015
  • Author: Scott Cherry
  • Number of views: 6628
  • Comments: 3
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